A theoretical question that I've long wondered about regarding indexes. Let's consider an equity index.
1) Perhaps my concept is faulty, but it's my understanding that such an index is essentially a representative array of stocks (companies), proportioned so as to mimic as closely as possible some specified index.
2) That specified index is going to be affected by the aggregate performance of all of the individual equity listings which constitute that index.
3) The performance of those individual equities, and thus the index itself, is determined by the buying and selling activities of active market participants.
For simplification, let's postulate that there is some fixed approximate number of market participants available, both active and passive (index) investors, for some particular market segment- let's say the Russell 2000 just as an example.
4) if there was no such thing as a Russell 2000 index fund, then all of these investors would by definition be "active".
5) OK, let's introduce a Russell 2000 index fund. Now, some percentage of those "active" investors become "passive" investors. These passive folks are content to let the remaining active investors determine the outcome of their index.
6) Presumably (and again theoretically) you could eventually get to the point where 50% of those investors interested in the Russell 2000 are active, and 50% passive.
7) Let's postulate that the passive index investors do so well and are so happy with life that more and more active investors join them. Let's exaggerate to the point of absurdity, just for the exercise:
Could we get to the point in any given index situation that, say 10% of the potential investors are determining the results for the remaining 90%?
There's a serious question underlying this obviously improbable scenario: Do passive indexers, by relinquishing activity, potentially change the performance of a particular index by deferring to the choices being made by the active investors? If we make the reasonable surmise that the active investors have a somewhat different personality spectrum from the passive group (maybe more informed, or financially more aggressive, or perhaps more inclined towards risk-taking, or financially very large vs small) doesn't the performance of any given index subtly change every time an active investor throws up their hands and becomes an "indexer"?
Comments
Regards,
Ted
Bad S&P 500 Data Point Last Seen At Dot-com Bust:
I'm getting in over my head here, and it'd be nice if some of our intellectual heavyweights contributed their thoughts on this.
What is "undiscovered" is the relative value of the components. Some companies may be overpriced and some underpriced, but if you're stuck buying all or none, you won't change their relative prices. Not dissimilar to buying a whole company even if you don't think all of their divisions are worth owning.
The net result is that capital is not deployed as effectively as possible, since the dogs continue to get fed at the expense of the stars. Or, a few active investors do all the allocating.
I hadn't considered the fact that merely buying or selling the index itself also is a type of input factor. How often does an index actually "reconstruct" itself to match the underlying individual assets? Is it once a day, after market close (like most funds), or is it an ongoing computerized adjustment?
I think by "index" here you mean a fund tracking the index. Remember the standard disclaimer - "you cannot invest directly in an index."
I know people think that index funds can be run by computer, but there is real skill involved - because some funds use sampling, because funds need to manage cash flows (purchases, redemptions, portfolio dividends/interest received, dividend distributions). So trading is constant.
Here's an old "The Street" column entitled "Managing an Index Fund Isn't Monkey Business":
Gus Sauter's "team of traders is constantly investing throughout the day, looking for the best price and the most efficient trade"
Thanks again, msf... you be a cool dude!