Okay, never used an advisor; so the question.
So, person "A" has $100,000 with their advisor. To keep things simple..........
The initial account set is 50% in equity fund "x" and 50% in bond fund "x". Six months later for whatever reason, 25% of either fund is sold and another fund is purchased.
Assume this pattern continues.
1. an initial fee to start the account with the first 2 funds puchases (CORRECT, YES?)
2. MIGHT advisor fees be generated again with subsequent purchases (in this example, every 6 months) ?
I know this is a bit of a wide open question, as advisor fees may function in varied fashions.
Have you a general guide line for fees with the above example?
NOTE: this question arises after viewing an 85 year old widow's account with several years of transactions. I did not consider most of the investment choices appropriate for her age and financial condition. But, the main item I noted was way too many transactions that had nothing to do with improving the quality of investments in her account.
Thank you.
Catch
Comments
if advisor is attached to a broker dealer and is compensated via commissioned products, then account churning might be a problem (not for mutual funds though, more for the exchange traded products). again, need to understand how relationship is set up.
Unfortunately, the elderly are often victimized by unscrupulous salesmen masquerading as advisors.
Of course, all this is thrown out where there are commissions paid on purchases. Unfortunately this is not addressed by the DOL fiduciary standards, except in the case of employee retirement accounts and rollovers of those accounts. And even then, the interpretation of the new regs is all over the place.