This morning I recieved another email from Matthews Asia regarding the lack of a dividend with MAPIX. I had asked a second question as to how further distributions would be handled with this investment decision. The answer is in the second paragraph.
"The lack of an income distribution for the Matthews Asia Dividend Fund is primarily due to the tax treatment of PFICs under the U.S. tax code. Even if a holding in a PFIC has not been sold, that PFIC position is typically marked to market and any gain or loss is treated as either an addition or a reduction to distribution income for that quarter. In the case of the Matthews Asia Dividend Fund, it is expected that certain PFIC holdings will reduce the distribution income to zero for the fourth quarter of 2014."
"Barring any changes in the U.S. tax code, it is expected that PFIC holdings in the Matthews Asia Dividend Fund will receive similar treatment with respect to any future distributions. Please note that due to the complexity of the U.S. tax code, different tax treatment than that described above may be possible for certain PFIC holdings."
So, it seems imply that future distributions may not happen with this PFIC investment they have taken on. The tax treatment is so severe with PFICs as they explained in the first paragraph.
I hope those of you holding MAPIX will find this information useful.
Comments
When I purchased this fund, I thought I was being a bit more conservative than in choosing one of their growth funds. As some others have mentioned, having the word "Dividend" in the fund's name implies that there will be such and in this case, on a quarterly basis. So far so good until Q4 this year when the fund announced no dividend would be paid. It took some investigating to find out why because Matthews was not very forthcoming until pushed.
I do plan to stick with this fund for now, but it is on my watch list for selling if things do not go well. In other words, they are on a short leash.
http://www.bloomberg.com/quote/MAPIX:US/chart
???
But it is still on a short leash for me.
Any reason not to move to SIGIX or MACSX if this is the case?
This explanation seems to be that PFICs are taxed at a higher rate specifically because they are passthrough income, and that the sales have nothing to do with it.
Again, devil in the details, but those are two different explanations as I read it, which is pretty maddening.
Beyond that, though, if a substantial portion of your income is being used just to pay taxes on certain holdings, what is the total return potential?
http://socialize.morningstar.com/NewSocialize/forums/p/343430/3593192.aspx#PageIndex=1